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Palestine was a territory of the Ottoman Empire at the time. Israel did not exist.
From what I can gather online there was a peasant revolt, but nothing sectarian about it. The Ottomans pillaged the villages during and after the revolt.
The movement towards Israeli as a state is a direct result of the actions of 1834, that's specifically why I mentioned it.
Then you didn't read.
The problem with this opinion is that it's not based on fact: the Zionist movement originated in Europe as a result of pogroms there, not in the Middle East.
The problem with that opinion is it's not
hardbased on fact, the families that fled often ended up in Europe.StillSome of which were later displaced again by pograms in Europe.It's literally in the history of Zionism written by avowed Zionists. You might as well argue with water about how wet it may or may not be.
Huh?
The families that fled the Romans?
Modern Zionism ie the Zionism of the Israeli government is not based on Roman pograms though I'm sure some could indeed trace back that far. That said even making your argument proves my point further.
So who did they flee to end up in Europe?
Jesus Christ, respond at glacial speeds without being too bothered about doing any research yourself including apparently looking up like 5 comments.
Ed:
You're a moron, you'd think you'd at least remember your own point.