Question: How on earth does any of this work and is this speaker credible?
As far as I understand it T2D is a syndrome of insulin resistance which has caused very poor glycemic control, so the patient is effectively carbohydrate intolerant.
This speaker suggests that increasing sugar intake when carbohydrate intolerant improves glycemic control, and reverses T2D... what? What?
As we know, there is a lot of ridiculous pseudoscience out there.
That 1971 paper seems to reference a downregulation of sensitivity, (which happens in many body systems), but notes that glucose tolerance tests are still similar.
Type II diabetes is Genetic, (the genetic penetrance much more so than in Type I)
Unfortunately diet modification can only help with Type II for so long.
Conversely, all those people who are told that 'sweet food will give them diabetes', not the case if they dont have the type II gene.
Okay, I think the mechanism of action for this wackadoodle diet is:
Resistant starches are the only food source, they get into the gut, and produce short chain fatty acids. The glycemic impact is reduced versus other diet options. So insulin levels elevate, but not as high as with an ad libidum diet. This is sufficient for some patients to resolve their diabetic issues.
I think that's it inna nutshell. The potato Diet, rice diet, I wasn't able to find any detailed papers about mechanisms, or even insulin levels over time. So I'm just speculating wildly on the few papers that exist